STATE
BANK OF INDIA PROBITIONARY OFFICER EXAMINATIN 2015
Based on Memory Date: 14/06/2015-Evening Shift ©banking-hub.blogspot.com
REASONING (HIGH LEVEL)
Directions (Q.1 – 5): In
each question below are given three/four statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
1)
If only conclusion I
follows.
2)
If only conclusion II
follows.
3)
If either conclusion I or
II follows.
4)
If neither conclusion I nor
II follows.
5)
If both conclusions I and
II follow.
(1–2):
Statements: Some
balls are footballs.
All bats are balls. All footballs are volleyballs.
No fund is a bat.
1. Conclusions: I. All
volleyballs being balls is a possibility.
II. All funds are balls.
2. Conclusions: I. All
funds being volleyballs is a possibility.
II. Some funds can never be
footballs.
3. Statements: No star
is a sun.
All suns are planets. All stars are moons.
Conclusions:
I. Some moons if they are suns
must be planets.
(4–5):
Statements: Some stores
are not products.
All businesses are stores
All businesses are capital.
4. Conclusions:
I. Some products which are
capital are also stores.
II. No product is a store.
5. Conclusions:
I. All products being
businesses is a possibility.
II. Some stores which are not
business are capital.
Directions (Q. 6 -10): Study
the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input
line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each
step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input
|
:
|
Follow 80 92 give neither 88 even 85 81 big sound 83
|
Step I
|
:
|
Big follow 80 give neither 88 even 85 81 sound 83 92
|
Step II
|
:
|
Even big follow 80 give neither 85 81 sound 83 92 88
|
Step III
|
:
|
Follow even big 80 give neither 81 sound 83 92 88 85
|
Step IV
|
:
|
Give follow even big 80 neither 81 sound 92 88 85 83
|
Step V
|
:
|
Neither give follow even big 80 sound 92 88 85 83 81
|
Step VI
|
:
|
Sound neither give follow even big 92 88 85 83 81 80
|
Step VI is the last step of the above input. As per the
rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions,
the appropriate step for the given input.
Input: 23 for 79 61 about being
eraser 55 more 73 69 over
6. Which will be the third step?
1) eraser being about 23 61
for 55 more over 79 73 69
2) for eraser being about
23 55 more over 79 73 69 61
3) eraser being about 23
for 61 more 55 over 79 73 69
4) eraser being about 23
for 61 55 more over 79 73 69
5) None of these
7. How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
1) Five 2) Six 3) Seven
4) Eight 5) None of these
8. Which word/number would be at the eighth position from the
left in step IV?
1) more 2) 55 3) over
4) 79 5) None of these
9. In which step will there be the following output?
‘for eraser being about 23
55 more over 79 73 69 61’
1) Step I 2) Step II 3) Step III
4) Step IV 5)
Step V
10. Which of the following represents the position of ‘23’ in step V?
1) Sixth from the left 2) Sixth from the right
3) Seventh from the left 4) Eighth from the right
5) None of these
Directions (Q.11 – 15):
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code language ‘cyber crime has risen’ is
written as ‘le te ke pe’, ‘person has arrested’ is written as ‘se me te’,
‘crime data has risen’ is written as ‘pe te le je’ and ‘cyber crime were
reporter’ is written as ‘ke pe ze ne’.
11. What stands for ‘data’?
1) ke 2) le 3) je
4) pe 5) None of these
12. ‘ze je le te’ is the code for which of the following?
1) person data has risen 2) arrested data has risen
3) crime data has risen 4) data reported has risen
5) Can’t be determined
13. ‘ze’ stands for
1) were 2) reported 3) person
4) Can’t be determined 5) None of these
14. Which of the following may be the code for ‘cyber crime cases
were reported’?
1) pe ke ze ne le 2)
ze ne ke pe te
3) ze pe ne ke je 4) ze pe ne ke gi
5) None of these
15. ‘person has been arrested’ could be coded as which of the
following?
1) me se te ke 2) se me te ze 3) me se te je
4) se me te ci 5) None of these
Directions (Q.16 – 20): In
each of these questions, relationships between two elements is shown in the statements.
These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read the statements and give
answer
1)
If only conclusion I
follows.
2)
If only conclusion II
follows.
3)
If either conclusion I or
II follows.
4)
If neither conclusion I nor
II follows.
5)
If both conclusion I and II
follow.
16. Statements: P = Q, M
< N, P < N, J ≤ M
Conclusions: I. P > M II. N
> J
17. Statements: C ≥ Q, L =
T, D < C, L ≤ Q
Conclusions: I. Q > L II. D
> L
18. Statements: U < V,
S ≥ C, U ≥ F, F > C
Conclusions: I. V > C II. U
> S
19. Statements: T < R,
I ≥ E, T ≥ E, I = L
Conclusions: I. E = R II. R
> L
20. Statements: L ≤ M, N
> J, X ≥ M, L = N
Conclusions: I. N < M II. N ≥ M
Directions
(Q. 21 – 25): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
that follow.
A group of seven friends A, B, C, D, E,
F and G work as Economist, Agriculture Officer, IT Officer, Terminal Operator,
Clerk, Forex Officer and Research Analyst, for Banks L, M, N, P, Q, R and S but
not necessarily in the same order. C works for Bank N and is neither a Research
Analyst nor a Clerk. E is an IT Officer and works for Bank R. A works as Forex
Officer and does not work for Bank L or Q. The one who is an Agriculture
Officer works for Bank M. The one who works for Bank L works as a Terminal
Operator. F works for Bank Q. G works for Bank P as a Research Analyst. D is
not an Agriculture Officer.
21. Who amongst the
following works as an Agriculture Officer?
1)
C 2) B 3) F
4)
D 5) None of
these
22. What is the
profession of C?
1)
Terminal Operator 2)
Agriculture Officer
3)
Economist 4) Cannot be
determined
5)
None of these
23. For which bank
does B work?
1)
M 2) S 3) L
4)
Either M or S 5) None of these
24. What is the
profession of the person who works for Bank S?
1)
Clerk 2)
Agriculture Officer
3)
Terminal Operator 4) Forex
Officer
5)
None of these
25. Which of the
following combinations of person, profession and bank is correct?
1)
A – Forex Officer – M 2) D –
Clerk – L
3)
F – Agriculture Officer – Q 4) B –
Agriculture Officer – S
5)
None of these
Directions (Q. 26 – 30): Each of the
questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and
III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements
and give answer.
1)
If the data in statement I
and II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement III
are not required to answer the question.
2)
If the data in statement I
and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II
are not required to answer the question.
3)
If the data in statement II
and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I
are not required to answer the question.
4)
If the data in statement I alone
or in statement II alone or in statement III alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
5)
If the data in all the
statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question.
26. Among six persons Rahim, Ravi, Raja, Rakhi, Rani and Rohit, each
lives on a different floor of six-storey building having its six floors
numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered I, the floor above it 2, and
so on, and the topmost floor is numbered 6). Who lives on the topmost floor?
I.
There is only one floor
between the floors on which Raja and Ravi live. Rahim lives on an even-numbered
floor.
II. Rani does not live on an even-numbered floor. Ravi lives
on an even-numbered floor. Ravi does not live on the topmost floor.
III. Rakhi lives on an odd-numbered floor. There are two floors
between the floors on which Rakhi and Rahim live. Rani lives on a floor
immediately above Raja’s floor.
27. Are all the four friends, viz. Amar, Arun, Ashish and Avinash,
who are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre?
I.
Arun sits to the right of
Avinash. Avinash faces the centre. Ashish sits to the right of Arun and
opposite Avinash
II. Amar sits on the immediate left of Arun. Ashish is not an
immediate neighbor of Amar. Ashish sits on the immediate right of Avinash.
III. Avinash is an immediate neighbor of both Amar and Ashish.
Arun sits on the immediate left of Amar. Ashish sits on the immediate right of
Arun.
28. How is ‘the’ coded in a code language?
I.
‘the following information
below’ is coded as ‘zo pi ko fe’ and ‘look beyond stores of’ is coded as ‘ga to
ru ko’.
II. ‘the given data goes’ is coded as ‘ba le fe me’ and
‘given in small business’ is coded as ‘yu si mi de’.
III. ‘given big look stores’ is coded as ‘to mi ru hy’ and
‘big information required below’ is coded as ‘qu ko zo hy’.
29. Point A is in which direction with respect to point B?
I.
Point D is to the west of
point B. Point L is to the north of point B. Point A is to the south of point
L.
II. Point M is to the south of point A. Point M is 4 m from
point B. Point A is 9 m from point B.
III. Point D is to the west of point B. Point B is exactly
midway between point D and C. Point O is to the south of Point C. Point A is to
the west of point O.
30. There are six letters K, M, T, R, A and E. Is the word ‘MARKET’
formed after performing the following operations, using these six letter only?
I.
E is place fourth to the
right of M. R is not placed immediately next to either M and E.
II. T is placed immediate next (either left or right) to E.
III. Both A and K are placed immediate next to R. the word
does not begin with R. M is not placed immediate next to K.
Directions (Q. 31–35): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions which follow:
A Research
Institute is recruiting a librarian to digitize its information resources among
other duties. Candidates must possess the following criteria. The candidate
must
I.
Be not less than 35 years and not exceed 40 years as on
01.11.2009.
II.
Have a Bachelor’s Degree in Library and Information Science
with 65 per cent marks.
III.
Have a PhD in Library Science.
IV.
Have post qualification experience of at least 4 years in a
University Library.
However, if the candidate
fulfills the above mentioned criteria except
A.
(II), but has a UGC NET certification with all the other
above criteria fulfilled, he/she may be referred to the Dean.
B.
(IV), but all the eligibility criteria are met and the
candidate has at least one year’s experience in a research institute, he/she
may be offered contractual appointment for a year.
Based on the above criteria,
study carefully whether the following candidates are eligible for the
recruitment process and mark your answer as follows. You are not to assume
anything other than the information provided in each question. All cases are
given to you as on 1.11.2009.
Marks
answer 1)
if he/she is to be shortlisted.
Marks
answer 2)
if he/she is not to be shortlisted.
Marks
answer 3)
if he/she should be referred to the Dean.
Marks
answer 4)
if he/she may be offered contractual appointment, if required.
Marks
answer 5)
if the data provided is inadequate to take a decision.
31. Anil Rath has a
doctorate in Library Science from Karnataka University in 2003. Born on July
21, 1969, he graduated in Library and Information Science from Karnataka
University, where he was Assistant Librarian for four years since 2005.
32. Dr. Samir Bali
has a PhD in Library Science and has been with the Institute of Fundamental
Research as Assistant Librarian since October 2008. He graduated with a degree
in Library and Information Science in 1994 at the age of 22. He obtained 70 per
cent in his graduation.
33. Vaishali Shetty
has been a librarian at STS University since 2007 when she qualified in the UGC
NET examination. She has a degree in Library and Information Science with 60
per cent. Her first job was as junior librarian at TRP Institute of Development
Research from October 2000 to December 2001.
34. Vivek Jha has a
PhD in Library and Information Science. He graduated in Library and Information
Science in 1992 with 65 per cent. He was born on 1.10.1974. Since July 2005, he
has been working as Deputy Librarian at a deemed University.
35. A graduate in
Library Science with 69 per cent, Dr M Puri has been working at Ranchi University
for 4 years as Deputy Librarian. She earned her doctorate while working for the
Labour Research Institute for 5 years as Assistant Librarian. She is 38 years
old as on the required date.
Directions
(Q. 36 – 40): Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B).
These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of
independent causes or of a common cause. One of these statements may be the
effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the
following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two
statements.
Mark answer 1) if statement
(A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
Mark answer 2) if statement
(B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.
Mark answer 3) if both the
statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
Mark answer 4) if both the
statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
Mark answer 5) if both the
statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.
36. (A) State Govt has ordered immediate
ban on airing of certain movie channels on television.
(B) A few social activists have come
together and demanded ban on telecasting ‘Adult’ movies on television.
37. (A) Employment scenario in the country
has remarkably improved recently.
(B) The number of prospective
job-seekers going abroad has increased recently.
38. (A) Government has tightened security
checks at all important places and also at various public places.
(B) Incidences of terrorist attacks are
increasing day by day.
39. (A) The high court has fixed a time
limit for repairing all the roads in the city.
(B) Road development authorities in the
city are carrying out road repair work on an urgent basis.
40. (A) There is an outbreak of several
epidemics in the country.
(B) There was a worst flood situation
ever experienced in the past in most parts of the country.
Directions (Q. 41
to 45): In each of these questions given below, a group of digits is given
followed by four combinations of letters/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and
(4). You have to find out which of the four combinations correctly represents
the group of digits based on the letter/symbol codes and the conditions given
below. If none of the four combinations represents the group of digits
correctly, give (5) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Digit : 3
9 6 2
8 7 5
4 1
Letter/Symbol : M
= S @
P Δ D
V *
Conditions for coding the group
of digits:
I.
If the first digit is odd and last digit is even, the codes
for the first and the last digits are to be interchanged.
II.
If the first as well as the last digit is even, both are to
be coded by the code for last digit.
III.
If the first as well as the last digit is odd, both are to
be coded as ‘X’.
41. 834762
1)
PMV5ΔSP 2) PMVΔS@ 3) @MVΔSP
4)
MVΔS@ 5)
None of these
42. 285961
1)
@PD=S* 2)
@ΔD=S* 3) @PV=S*
4)
@PD=SV 5) None of these
43. 972486
1)
=Δ@VPS 2) SΔ@VP= 2) SD@VP=
3)
SA@*P= 5) None of these
44. 748956
1) AVP=DS 2)
SVP=DS 3) ΔVP=DΔ
4) S*P=DΔ 5) None of these
45. 785291
1)
ΔPD@*X 2) ΔPD@=X 3) XPD@=X
2)
XPD@=* 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 46 to 50): These questions are based on the
following information. Study it carefully and answer the questions.
Seven members
L, H, K, T, F, J and R represent different countries in Olympics, viz. USA,
China, Korea, France, Russia, Australia and Japan; each one competes for a
different sport. viz. Volleyball, Archery, Rifle Shooting, Tennis, Boxing,
Athletics and Football. The order of persons, countries and games is not
necessarily the same.
K represents
China for Archery. T represents USA but not for Volleyball or Rifle Shooting.
The one who represents Japan competes for Boxing. F competes for Volleyball but
not for Korea. L represents Australia for Athletics. The one who represents
Russia competes for Tennis. J does not represent Korea or Japan. R competes for
Rifle Shooting.
46. Which of the
following combination is correct?
1)
J – Tennis – France 2) R –
Tennis – Russia
3)
R – Tennis – France 4) J –
Tennis – Russia
5)
None of these
47. Who represents
Japan?
1)
F 2) R 3) J 4) H 5)
None of these
48. F represents
which country?
1)
France 2) Russia 3) Japan
4)
USA 5) None of
these
49. The one who
competes for Rifle Shooting, represents which country?
1)
France 2) Korea 3) Japan
4)
USA 5) None of
these
50. For which game
does T compete?
1)
Boxing 2) Football 3) Tennis
4)
Cannot be determined 5) None of
these
DATA ANALYSIS AND INTERPRETATION
Directions (Q.51-55) : Study the graph below and
answer the questions that follow:
Revenue of top three Indian pharmaceutical companies
in FY 2009-10 and 2010-11 in (Rs. Crore)
Profit = Revenue – Expenditure
 |
51. What
is the approximate difference (in Rs.) between the average revenue of all the
three pharma companies in the year 2009-10 and that in 2010-11
1) 1500 crore 2)
2187 crore 3) 1987 crore
4) 1438 crore 5)
None of these
52. What
is the approximate difference in expenditure (in Rs.) of Dr. Reddy’s the Sun
pharma in the FY 2009-10?
1) 1400 crore 2)
1349 crore 3) 1394 crore
4) 1450 crore 5)
1300 crore
53. What
is the difference (in Rs.) between the revenues generated by all the three
pharma companies in the FY 2009-10 and 2010-11?
1) 9224 crore 2)
9000 crore 3) 8665 crore
4) 6561 crore 5)
Can’t be determined
54. What
is the percentage of revenue of Sun Pharmaceuticals with respect to total revenue
of all three companies in FY 2010-11?
1) 25.87 % 2)
27.89 % 3) 28.30 %
4) 32.14 % 5) 29.08 %
55. What
is the approximate increase/decrease in expenditure (in Rs.) of Ranbaxy
Laboratories in the FY 2010-11 over its previous year?
1) 1598 crore 2)
1648 crore 3) 1545 crore
4) 1608 crore 5)
Can’t be determined
Directions (Q. 56 – 60): Study the table and answer the
questions that follow:
The first table shows the
net sales of different organizations and YoY % change in their sales for the
first quarter of FY 2012
Organization
|
Net profit (in Rs. crore)
|
% change
|
Dutch Bank
|
7570
|
26.6
|
CLSA
|
6186
|
2.6
|
Morgan Stanley
|
7372
|
23
|
Motilal Oswal Security
|
599
|
24.1
|
HDFC Bank
|
609
|
26.1
|
City Bank
|
597
|
24.0
|
The second table shows the
net profit and YoY % change in their profit for the first quarter of FY 2012.
Organization
|
Net profit (in Rs. crore)
|
% change
|
Dutch Bank
|
546
|
- 15.2
|
CLSA
|
502
|
- 22
|
Morgan Stanley
|
623
|
- 3
|
Motilal Oswal Security
|
377
|
20.4
|
HDFC Bank
|
359
|
14.6
|
City Bank
|
388
|
24.0
|
56. What
is the approximate average (in Rs. crore) of net profits of Dutch Bank and CLSA
in the first quarter of the previous year?
1) 700 2) 644
3) 636 4) 605 5) None of these
57. What
is approximate percentage of net sales of Dutch Bank with respect to the net
sales of all the organizations in the first quarter of fiscal year 2012?
1) 35 % 2) 30 % 3) 29 %
4) 33 % 5) None of these
58. Which
of the following organizations has net profit to net sales ratio the maximum?
1) CLSA 2)
Morgan Stanley
3) Motilal Oswal 4)
HDFC Bank 5) Citi Bank
59. Which
of the following banks has net profit to net sales ratio the least?
1) Dutch Bank 2)
CLSA 3) Morgan Stanley
4) Motilal Oswal 5)
HDFC Bank
60. What
was the approximate average (in Rs.) of net sales of HDFC and Citi Bank sales
in the first quarter of the previous year?
1) 482 crore 2) 473 crore 3) 462 crore
4) 445 crore 5)
Can’t be determined
Directions (Q. 61 – 65): Study the following
pie-chart, line graph and table and answer the questions that follow.
Share holding of Institutions, Foreign and Domestic
individuals in Microfinance institutions in 2011
The following table shows the tax paid on profits over
the years
Year
|
Tax paid on profit
|
2006
|
10 %
|
2007
|
8 %
|
2008
|
10 %
|
2009
|
12 %
|
2010
|
10 %
|
2011
|
10 %
|
Dividend = Gross profit – Tax
Dividend (Net profit) is provided to shareholders
according to their investment ratio in microfinance institutions.
Note: The money invested by
Unitus Equity fund in microfinance institutions is Rs. 80 crore.
61. What
would have been the total dividend (in Rs.) collected to provide all the
shareholders, after doing business in the year 2011 ?
1) 80 crore 2)
82 crore 3) 72 crore
4) 78 crore 5)
Can’t be determined
62. What
would have been the difference (in Rs.) between
the dividend received by India Financial Inclusion Fund and WCP
Maurititus?
1) 82 lakh 2)
96 crore 3) 76 lakh
4) 72 crore 5) Can’t be determined
63. If
in 2007 total money received by the shareholders was Rs. 600 crore then what is
the ratio of tax paid in the year 2007 to that in year 2011?
1) 15 : 47 2)
9 : 50 3)
8 : 47
4) 16 : 47 5)
Can’t be determined
64. If
the money received by shareholders in the year 2010 is 10 % less than that in
2011, what was the dividend (in Rs.) received by Sequio Capital in the year
2010 ?
1) 7.78 crore 2)
8.96 crore 3) 6.98 crore
4) 6.90 crore 5)
Can’t be determined
65. If
the total money received by the shareholders is Rs. 800 crore in 2011 what is
the ratio of the money invested and the total money received by Elevar Equity
in the year 2011?
1) 105 : 119 2)
100 : 109 3) 99 : 100
4) 99 : 105 5)
None of these
Directions (Q. 66 – 70): Study the following
graphs to answer the questions given below:
Number of applicants (in lakh) for three different
engineering entrance exams, viz IIT, AIEEE and State Entrance Exams over the
years
The following graph shows the number of females
applicants of AIEEE and State Entrance Exam per one lakh.
66. What
is the percentage of the number of average applicants, for IIT Entrance Exam
with respect to that of average applicants for AIEEE over the given period
2006-2011?
1) 50 % 2)
66
% 3)
75 %
% 3)
75 %
4) 45 % 5)
None of these
67. In
which of the following years the percentage increase/decrease in the number of
applicants for State Entrance Exam is maximum with respect to the previous
year?
1) 2007 2)
2008 3)
2009
4) 2010 5)
None of these
68. The
number of female applicants, for State Entrance Exam is what percentage of the
number of female applicants for AIEEE in the year 2011?
1) 48.14 % 2) 35.14 % 3) 60.41 %
4) 63.14 % 5)
Can’t be determined
69. What
is the approximate percentage increase or decrease in the number of male
applicants for State Entrance Exam in the year 2010 with respect to the
previous year?
1) 8 % 2)
7 % 3) 9 %
4) 6 % 5)
Can’t be determined
70. What
is the ratio of the number of male applicants for IIT to that for AIEEE in the
year 2009?
1) 51 : 99 2)
32 : 63 3) 43 : 55
4) 44 : 63 5) Can’t be determined
Directions (Q.71 –75): Study the following table
carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Number of people visiting six different
Super-markets and the percentage of Men, Women and Children visiting those
Super-markets
Names of the Super-markets
|
Total Number of People
|
Percentage of
|
||
Men
|
Women
|
Children
|
||
A
|
34560
|
35
|
55
|
10
|
B
|
65900
|
37
|
43
|
20
|
C
|
45640
|
35
|
45
|
20
|
D
|
55500
|
41
|
26
|
33
|
E
|
42350
|
06
|
70
|
24
|
F
|
59650
|
24
|
62
|
14
|
71. Number
of men visiting Super-market D forms approximately what percent of the total
number of people visiting all the Super-markets together?
1) 11 2)
5.5 3) 13
4) 9 5)
7.5
72. Number
of children visiting Super-market C forms what percent of number of children
visiting Super-market F? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
1) 91.49 2)
49.85 3) 121.71
4) 109.30 5) None of these
73. What
is the total number of children visiting Super-markets B and D together?
1) 18515 2)
28479 3)
31495
4) 22308 5)
None of these
74. What
is the average number of women visiting all the Super-markets together?
1) 24823.5 2) 22388.5 3) 26432.5
4) 20988.5 5)
None of these
75. What
is the respective ratio of number of women visiting Super-markets A to those
visiting Supermarket C?
1) 35 : 37 2)
245 : 316 3) 352 : 377
4) 1041 : 1156 5)
None of these
Directions (76-80): Study the information
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
A school consisting of a total of 1560 students has boys
and girls in the ratio of 7 : 5 respectively. All the students are enrolled in
different types of hobby classes, viz: Singing, Dancing and Painting. One-fifth
of the boys are enrolled in only Dancing classes. Twenty percent of the girls
are enrolled in only Painting Classes. Ten percent of the boys are enrolled in
only Singing classes. Twenty four percent of the girls are enrolled in both
Singing and Dancing classes together. The number of girls enrolled in only
Singing classes is two hundred percent of the boys enrolled in the same.
One-thirteenth of the boys are enrolled in all the three classes together. The
respective ratio of boys enrolled in Dancing and Painting classes together to
the girls enrolled in the same is 2 : 1 respectively. Ten percent of the girls
are enrolled in only Dancing classes whereas eight percent of the girls are
enrolled in both Dancing and Painting classes together. The remaining girls are
enrolled in all the three classes together. The number of boys enrolled in
Singing and Dancing classes together is fifty percent of the number of girls
enrolled in the same. The remaining boys are enrolled in only Painting classes.
76. What
is the total number of boys who are enrolled in Dancing?
1) 318 2) 364 3) 292
4) 434 5) None of these
77. Total
number of girls enrolled in Singing is approximately what percent of the total
number of students in the school?
1) 37 2) 19 3) 32 4) 14 5) 26
78. What
is the total number of students enrolled in all the three classes together?
1) 135 2) 164 3) 187
4) 142 5) None of these
79. Number
of girls enrolled in only Dancing classes is what percent of the boys enrolled
in the same? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)
1) 38.67 2)
35.71 3) 41.83
4) 28.62 5)
None of these
80. What
is the respective ratio of the number of girls enrolled in only Painting
classes to the number of boys enrolled in the same?
1) 77 : 26 2)
21 : 73 3) 26 : 77
4) 73 : 21 5)
None of these
Directions (81-85): Study the given
information carefully to answer the questions that follow:
An urn contains 6 red, 4 blue, 2 green and 3 yellow
marbles.
81. If
four marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that at least one is
blue?
1) 
2) 
3) 
4) 
5) None of
these
2) 3) 4) 5) None of
these
82. If
two marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that both are red?
1) 
2) 
3) 
4) 
5) None of
these
2) 3) 4) 5) None of
these
83. If
three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that two are blue
and one is yellow?
1) 
2) 
3)
4)
5) None
of these
2) 3) 4) 5) None
of these
84. If
four marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that one is green,
two are blue and one is red?
1) 
2) 
3) 4) 
5) None of
these
2) 3) 4) 5) None of
these
85. If
two marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that either both are
green or both are yellow?
1) 
2) 
3) 4) 
5) None of these
2) 3) 4) 5) None of these
Directions (86-87): Study the following data
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Out of a total number of commuters commuting daily in a
city, 17171 commuters commute only by trains. 7359 commuters commute only by
bikes and 22077 commuters commute only by buses. 14718 commuters commute only
by their private cars and 4906 commuters commute only by autos. 7359 commuters
commute only by taxis. 26983 commuters commute by buses as well as trains. 9812
commuters commute by autos as well as trains. 12265 commuters commute by buses
as well as autos.
86. The
total number of commuters commuting by trains forms what percent of the total
number of commuters commuting daily?
1) 22 2) 44
3) 14 4) 36 5) None of these
87. The
total number of commuters commuting by autos forms what per cent of the total
number of commuters, commuting daily?
1) 10 2) 18 3) 22 4) 4 5) None of these
88. The
total number of commuters commuting by bikes and taxis together forms what per
cent of the total number of commuters commuting daily?
1) 12 2) 6 3) 8 4) 16 5) None of these
89. What
is the total number of commuters in the city commuting daily?
1) 122650 2) 126250 3) 162250
4) 152260 5)
None of these
90. The
number of commuters commuting only by bus forms what per cent of the total
number of commuters commuting daily?
1) 40 2) 22
3) 32 4) 18
5) None of these
Directions (91-95): Study the following table
and answer the questions given below.
Export of electronic goods from India (in Rs Crore)
Year
|
Total Exports
|
Electronic Goods
|
2001
|
5143
|
552
|
2002
|
5404
|
624
|
2003
|
5426
|
717
|
2004
|
5999
|
653
|
91. Approximately
what per cent of the total exports were electronic goods in 2003?
1) 13% 2) 19% 3) 21 % 4) 23 % 5) None of these
92. The
fall in electronic goods exports in 2004 from 2003 was nearly
1) 20 % 2) 15
% 3) 9 % 4) 12 % 5) 16 %
93. If
the electronic goods are not exported in the year 2002, then what are the total
exports of that year?
1) 4770 2)
4780 3) 4790
4) 4760 5)
None of these
94. Percentage
growth of electronic goods exports in the period of 2002 to 2003 exceeded the
percentage growth of the total exports over the same period approximately by
1) 3.5 2)
12.5 3) 15.5 4) 11.5 5) 14.5
95. Over
the 4 – year period from 2001 to 2004, the electronic exports rose by nearly
1) 16.3% 2)
15.3% 3) 14.3% 4) 18.3% 5) 20.3%
Directions (96-100): Study the table
carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Percentage of Marks obtained by Different Students in
Different Subjects
Students
|
Subjects
|
|||||
Hindi
(100)
|
English
(50)
|
Maths
(150)
|
S.St.
(125)
|
Science
(150)
|
Marathi
(50)
|
|
Bhavya
|
98
|
88
|
84
|
88
|
64
|
68
|
Pankaj
|
77
|
92
|
92
|
88
|
84
|
80
|
Tanish
|
81
|
80
|
84
|
80
|
78
|
90
|
Arnav
|
90
|
86
|
76
|
64
|
66
|
56
|
Anshul
|
69
|
66
|
66
|
76
|
72
|
72
|
Devang
|
89
|
90
|
70
|
92
|
60
|
66
|
96. How
much marks did Bhavya get in all the Subjects together?
1) 508 2) 477 3) 454 4) 537 5) None of these
97. What
is the average marks obtained by all students together in Marathi?
1) 72 2) 48 3) 28
4) 36 5) None of these
98. How
many students have scored the highest marks in more than one subject?
1) None 2)
One 3) Two
4) Three 5)
None of these
99. What
is Tanish’s overall percentage of marks in all subjects together?
1) 85.92 2)
72.64 3) 81.44
4) 76.32 5)
None of these
100. Who
has scored the highest marks in all the subjects together?
1) Bhavya 2)
Pankaj 3) Anshul
4) Devang 5)
None of these
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (101-115): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have
been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
A new analysis has
determined that the threat of global warming can still be greatly diminished if nations cut emissions of
heat-trapping greenhouse gases by 70 % this century. The analysis was done by
scientists at the National Center for Atmospheric Research (NCAR). While global
temperatures would rise, the most dangerous potential aspects of climate
change, including massive losses of
Arctic sea ice and permafrost and significant
sea-level rise, could be partially avoided.
“This research indicates
that we can no longer avoid significant warming during this century,” said NCAR
scientist Warren Washington, the study paper’s lead author. “But, if the world
were to implement this level of emission cuts, we could stabilize the threat of
climate change,” he added.
Average global temperatures
have warmed by close to 1 degree Celsius since the pre-industrial era. Much of
the warming is due to human-produced emissions of greenhouse gases, predominantly carbon dioxide. This
heat-trapping gas has increased from a pre-industrial level of about 284 parts
per million (ppm) in the atmosphere to more than 380 ppm today. With research
showing that additional warming of about 1 degree Celsius may be the threshold
for dangerous climate change, the European Union has called for dramatic cuts in emissions of
carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.
To examine the impact of
such cuts on the world’s climate, Washington and his colleagues ran a series of
global studies with the NCAR-based Community Climate System Model (CCSM). They
assumed that carbon dioxide levels could be held to 450 ppm at the end of this
century. In contrast, emissions am now on track to reach about 750 ppm by 2100
if unchecked. The team’s results showed that if carbon dioxide were held to 450
ppm, global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degree Celsius above current
readings by the end of the century. In contrast, the study showed that the
temperatures would rise by almost four limes that amount, to 2.2 degrees
Celsius above current readings, if emissions were allowed to continue on their
present course. Holding carbon dioxide levels to 450 ppm would have other
impacts. According to the climate modeling study.
Sea-level rise due to
thermal expansion as water temperatures warmed would be 14 centimetres (about
5.5 inches) instead of 22 centimetres (8.7 inches). Also, Arctic ice in the
summertime would shrink by about a
quarter in volume and stabilize by 2100, as opposed to shrinking at least three-quarters and continuing to
melt, and Arctic warming would be reduced by almost half.
101. Why
has the European Union called for dramatic cuts in carbon dioxide and
greenhouse gas emissions?
1) As global warming is not an issue of concern
2) As the temperatures may rise almost by an additional one
degree and this may lead to severe climate change
3) As the NCAR has forced the European Union to announce the
cuts
4) As all the nations have decided to cut emissions of
carbon dioxide
5) None of these
102. What
would not be one of the impacts of cutting greenhouse gas omissions?
1) Temperatures will stop soaring.
2) Ice in the Arctic sea would melt at a slower pace.
3) The rise in sea level would be lesser.
4) All of the above would be the impact
5) None of these
103. What
would be the impact of unchecked greenhouse gas and carbon dioxide emissions?
1) The temperature would rise from the current temperature
by 2.2 degrees Celsius.
2) The sea level would rise by about 5.5 inches.
3) The Arctic ice would stabilize by 2100.
4) The Arctic ice would reduce by one-fourth.
5) None of these
104. What
can be the most appropriate title of the above passage?
1) A study of the rise in water level
2) A study of rise in temperatures
3) A study of the effects of greenhouse gas emissions
4) A study of the Arctic region
5) A study of change in seasons
105. Which
of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?
1) At present the carbon dioxide emission is about 284 ppm.
2) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 450 ppm at the
end of this century if unchecked.
3) The carbon dioxide emission was about 330 ppm during the
pre-industrial area.
4) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 750 ppm at the
end of this century if unchecked.
5) None of these
106. What
does the scientist Warren Washington mean when he says “we could stabilize the
threat of climate change”?
1) Climate change can be stopped completely.
2) Climate change can be regularized.
3) Climate change and its effects can be studied
extensively.
4) The ill-effects of the change in climate can be
minimized.
5) None of these
107. Why
did Washington and his colleagues conduct a series of studies?
1) Because they realized that the temperature increase was
almost about 1 degree.
2) So that they could stabilize the climate change
3) So that they could help the European Union in cutting the
carbon dioxide emissions.
4) Because they found out that the greenhouse gas emissions
could be cut by 70 %.
5) None of these
108. What
would be the impact of holding the carbon dioxide level at 450 ppm at the end
of this century?
A. Global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degrees
Celsius.
B. Arctic warming would be reduced by half.
C. Thermal expansion will stop completely.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (A) and (B)
3) Only (B) and (C) 4) All the three (A), (B) and (C)
5) None of these
Directions (Q.109-112): Choose the word which
is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
109. DRAMATIC
1) unprecedented 2) thrilling 3)
spectacular
4) effective 5)
feeble
110. SHRINK
1) contract 2)
physician 3) wither
4) shrivel 5)
reduce
111. PREDOMINANTLY
1) clearly 2)
aggressively 3) mainly
4) firstly 5)
faintly
112. MASSIVE
1) tall 2)
tough 3) total
4) little 5)
severe
Directions (Q.113-115): Choose the word which
is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
113. SIGNIFICANT
1) substantial 2) minuscule 3)
incoherent
4) unimportant 5) irrelevant
114. OPPOSED
1) resistant 2)
against 3) favouring
4) similar 5)
agree
115. DIMINISHED
1) created 2)
rose 3) increased
4) lessen 5)
finished
Directions (Q.116-120): Choose the most
effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.
116. These
essays are intellectually _________ and represent various levels of complexity.
1) revealing 2)
modern 3) superior
4) demanding 5)
persistent
117. It
was almost impossible for him to put out of his mind the _____ words which he
heard from his clever father-in-law.
1) inspiring 2)
witty 3)
sarcastic
4) soothing 5)
exhortative
118. Integrity
of character, honesty, dependability and discipline _____ with a genuine
interest in your work will go a long way in the achievement of success in your
professional life.
1) coupled 2) adjoined 3) fixed
4) attached 5)
joined
119. The
soldiers were instructed to _____ restraint and handle the situation
peacefully.
1) exercise 2) control 3) prevent
4) enforce 5)
remain
120. Ishwar
Chandra Vidyasagar was one of the chief ____ of women’s rights.
1) promoters 2)
facilitators 3) instigators
4) organizers 5)
protagonists
Directions (Q.121-125): In each of the
following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there
is no mistake, the answer is ‘No error’.
121. Our
Housing Society comprises of (1)/six blocks and (2)/ thirty three flats in an
(3)/area of about thousand sq. metres. (4)/ No error (5)
122. One
of the most (1)/widely spread (2)/bad habit (3)/is the use of tobacco. (4)/No
error (5)
123. Mahatma
Gandhi taught us (1)/that one should respect (2)/ the religions of others (3)/as
much as his own.(4)/ No error (5)
124. It
was apparent for everyone present (1)/that if the patient did not receive
(2)/medical attention fast (3)/he would die. (4)/No error (5)
125. I
found it difficult (1)/ to remove (2)/the chewing gum that (3)/stuck with my
cap (4)/No error (5)
Directions (Q.126-127): In the following
questions, a sentence has been given with some of its parts in bold. To make
the sentence correct, you have to replace the bold part with the correct
alternative given below. If the sentence is correct as it is, please give (5)
as your answer (i.e. No correction required).
126. Can
you tell me why did you not speak
the truth?
1) why did not you speak 2) that why did you not speak
3) why you did not speak 4) why did you not spoke
5) No improvement
127. Had
we been on time, we would not have
missed the train.
1) will not have 2) might have 3)
would have been
4) had not 5)
No improvement
128. If
you get confused while performing the act, just don’t stop to try.
1) keep your try on 2) continue your tries
3) not give up trying 4) keep on trying
5) No improvement
129. When
it was dark they decided to put at
an inn.
1) put up at 2) put in at 3) put off with
4) put out in 5)
No improvement
130. Bad
movies affect people living in today’s society more than they did in previous years.
1) they had been done 2) they had been doing
3) they had done 4) they had done
5) No improvement
Directions (Q.131-140): In the following
passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a
number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and
fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
Mastering new skills is not optional in today’s business environment.
When working on a new skill or competency, you need to ask yourself two things.
First, is your (131) attainable?
There are certain limits to what you can learn. For example, you may want to be
a brain surgeon, but not have the eye-hand (132)
required. Second, how much time and energy can you (133) to the project? Recognise that learning a new skill takes
extreme commitment. (134) your goal
is attainable and you’re prepared to work hard, you won’t get very far. You
also make sure the skill is (135) to
your career, your organization, or both. Gaining a new skill is an investment
and you need to know upfront what the (136)
will be. Self-improvement can feel overwhelming. Choose one or two skills to
focus on at a time, and break that skill down into manageable goals. For
example, if you’re trying to become more assertive, you might (137) on speaking up more often in
meetings by pushing (138) to talk
within the first five minutes. One of the (139)
ways to learn something new, and to practice it, is to teach others how to do
it. So, (140) what you learn with
your team, your manager or your co-workers.
131. 1)
system 2) goal 3) steps
4) zenith 5)
height
132. 1)
combination 2) practice 3) coordination
4) cooperation 5) function
133. 1)
give 2) receive 3)
exhaust
4) take 5)
share
134. 1)
till 2) until 3) when
4) otherwise 5)
unless
135. 1)
proportional 2) different 3) relevant
4) need 5)
wish
136. 1)
performance 2) return 3) aftermath
4) back 5)
amount
137. 1)
attentive 2) practice 3) consider
4) focus 5)
try
138. 1)
him 2) her 3) your
4) our 5)
yourself
139. 1)
better 2) quickest 3) establish
4) observed 5)
last
140. 1)
distribute 2) debenture 3) share
4) check 5)
give
Directions (Q. 141-145): Rearrange the following six sentences
(A), (B), (C), (D), (E), and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.
A.
In all varieties of humor,
especially the subtle ones, it is therefore what the reader thinks which gives
extra meaning to these verses.
B.
But such a verse may also
be enjoyed at the surface level.
C.
Nonsense verse is one of
the most sophisticated forms of literature.
D.
This fulfils the author’s
main intention in such a verse which is to give pleasure.
E.
However, the reader who
understands the broad implications of the content and allusion finds greater
pleasure.
F.
The reason being it
requires the reader to supply a meaning beyond the surface meaning.
141. Which
of the following is the FIFTH sentence?
1) (D)
2) (E) 3) (B) 4) (C) 5)
(A)
142. Which
of the following is the SIXTH (LAST) sentence?
1) (F)
2) (E) 3) (D) 4) (A) 5) (C)
143. Which
of the following is the FIRST
sentence?
1) (E)
2) (A) 3) (F) 4) (D) 5) (C)
144. Which
of the following is the SECOND
sentence?
1) (A)
2) (E) 3) (F)
4) (B) 5) (C)
145. Which
of the following is the THIRD sentence?
1) (A)
2) (B) 3) (F) 4) (C) 5) (D)
Directions (Q.146 – 150): In each of the following
questions, four words are given, of which two words are most nearly the same or
opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the same or
opposite in meaning and indicate the number of the correct letter combination
by darkening the appropriate oval in your answer sheet.
146. (A)
explicit (B) cautious (C) introvert (D) clear
1) A – B 2)
B – D 3) A – C
4) A – D 5)
C – D
147. (A)
fearful (B) beautiful (C) hostile (D) amicable
1) B – D 2)
C – D 3)
A – B
4) B – C 5)
A – D
148. (A)
unite (B) association (C) separate (D) distant
1) A – C 2)
A – B 3) B – C
4) B – D 5)
A – D
149. (A)
loud (B) prominent (C) salient (D) legible
1) A – C 2)
B – D 3) C – D
4) A – D 5)
B – C
150. (A)
fraud (B) barbarian (C) guilty (D) civilized
1) A – C 2)
A – B 3) B – D
4) A – D 5)
C – D
GENERAL AWARENESS/
COMPUTER/MARKETING
151. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (Trai) in October 2012
announced that processing fee for topping up prepaid phones be kept at _____ of
the retail price of vouchers.
1) 25 %
2) 20 % 3) 15 % 4) 10 % 5) 8 %
152. Government in October 2012 relaxed the foreign investment rules for
insurance and pension fund managers. It approved a _______ cap for Foreign
Direct Investment.
1) 61 %
2) 51 % 3) 49 %
4) 46 % 5) 39 %
153. Who among the following in October 2012 is appointed as the
President of Intel India?
1) Kumud Srinivasan 2) Atul Saxena
3) Manoj Kumar 4) Ajay Chawla 5) Kapil Gupta
154. HDFC Bank Ltd’s profit for the quarter ended September 2012 rose 30
% to _______ on the back of strong demand for loans from individuals.
1) Rs. 900 crore 2) Rs. 1200 crore 3)
1560 crore
4) Rs. 4100 crore 5) Rs. 2000 crore
155. India’s infrastructure sector output in August 2012 grew _______
from a year earlier.
1) 3.9 %
2) 3.2 % 3) 2.8 % 4) 2.1 % 5) 1.8 %
156. The government in September 2012 approved a _______ master plan for
the development of tourism in the north – east.
1) Rs. 4910 crore 2) Rs. 5900 crore 3) Rs.
6494 crore
4) Rs. 7000 crore 5) Rs. 7913 crore
157. State owned Oil and Natural Gas Corp. Ltd. In September 2012 announced
to invest about _____ to double its production over the next 18 years.
1) Rs. 4 trillion 2) Rs. 6 trillion 3)
Rs. 8 trillion
4) Rs. 10 trillion 5) Rs. 11 trillion
158. The 13th Finance Commission was headed by _____
1) Indire Rajaraman 2) Vijay Kelkar 3) Anuj Sharma
4) Arun Shouri 5) Ajay Saxena
159. Service Marketing is the same as
1) Transaction Marketing 2) Relationship Marketing
3) Internal Marketing 4) Outdoor Marketing
5) All of the above
160. Market Share means
1) Share market 2) Share prices 3)
IPOs
4) Scope for marketing
5) Share of business among peers
161. A ‘Lead’ in marketing jargon, means
1) a metal 2) a leash 3) a likely consumer
4) a team leader 5) None of these
162. Modern styles of marketing are
1) telemarketing 2) web marketing
3) advertisements on the net
4) e-mails 5)
All of the above
163. Computers manipulate data in many ways, and this manipulation is
called
1) upgrading 2)
processing 3) batching
4) utilizing 5)
None of these
164. Bancassurance means
1) Banks promising to give loans
2) Bank promising to pay interest
3) Bank selling insurance products
4) Assurance to repay loans 5)
None of these
165. A ‘Target Group’ means
1) a group of sellers 2) a group of buyers
3) a group of products
4) a group of persons to whom sales should be
focused
5) All of the above
166. Find the correct statement
1) Selling is same as marketing
2) Selling is more than marketing
3) Selling is part of marketing
4) All of the above 5) None of these
167. Effective Bank Marketing requires
1) proper pricing 2) customized products
3) simple procedures 4) market research
5) All of the above
168. Marketing is ______ find the wrong option.
1) an ancient concept 2) a modern need
3) a continuous affair 4) a team effort
5) a direct need for survival
169. A set of instructions telling the computer what to do is called
1) mentor 2)
instructor 3) complier
4) program 5) None of these
170. Market segmentation means
1) dividing the sales steam into small groups
2) dividing the marketing process into small
steps
3) dividing the territory into small areas
4) dividing the target groups into
homogeneous groups
5) All of the above
171. Diversification means
1) dividing the market into small segments
2) dividing energy of the sales persons
3) marketing of diverse products
4) All of the above 5) None of these
172. Customer database is
1) useful for lead generation
2) useful for cross selling 3) useful for CRM
4) useful for customization of products
5) All of the above
173. Education Loans can be more effectively canvassed by
1) Door-to-door campaigns 2) E-mail contacts
3) Diversification 4) tie-up with colleges
5) All of the above
174. Which of the following will be the venue of the
World Athletic Championship to be organized in 2017?
1)
Tokyo 2) Paris 3) New York
4)
London 5) Mumbai
175. Which country Supreme Court
annulled Contempt of Court Act 2012(COCA 2012) to Protecting the Prime
Minister?
1)
India 2)
Afghanistan 3) Burma
4)
Pakistan 5) None of
these
176. Which country's membership was
suspended by Islamic groups?
1)
Syria 2)
Iran 3) Iraq
4) Saudi 5) None of these
177. India Signed the Collaborative
Academic Research Program Agreement with?
1)
America 2) China 3) Pakistan
4)
Israel 5)
None of these
178. People killed at sikh temple
located at?
1) Oak
Creek in Wisconsin 2) Punjab
3)
Australia 4) Canada 5) None of these
179. From which Country India taken
the first Embraer 145 Airborne on 17th August 2012 moved one more step ahead in
aerial security?
1)
Britain 2) France 3) Brazil
4)
Russia 5) None of
these
180. Who had won Ghana’s Presidential election on 10
December 2012 ?
1) John
Atta Mills 2) John
Dramani
3) Nana
Addo Dankwa 4) Ahmed Issak
Hassan
5)
None of these
181. Which country Prime Minister was announced that
Britain has planned to withdraw more than half of its troops back from
Afghanistan by 2013?
1) Japan 2) India 3) Britain
4) France 5) None of these
182. Which State Government set up a Senior Citizen
Commission on 21st December 2012 ?
1) Uttar
Pradesh 2) Goa 3) Madhya Pradesh
4) Karnataka 5) None of these
183. Which of the following company won the Gold Award
for Marketing Excellence at the ITSMA Awards 2012?
1) Wipro 2) TCS 3) Infosys
4) Mahendra Satyam 5) None of these
184. Who among the
following won the women’s World chess Championship crown for the year 2012?
1) Antoaneta Stefanova 2) Yifan Hou
3) Anna Ushenina 4) Xu Yuhua
5) None of these
185. The
basic architecture of computer was developed
by:
1)
John Von Neumann 2) Charles Babbage
3)
Blaise Pascal 4)
Gorden Moore
5)
None of these
186. Line printer speed is specified
in terms of :
1) LPM 2)
CPM 3)
DPM
4) WPM 5)
None of these
187. EEPROM stands for:
1) Electrically Erased Programmable
Read Only Memory
2) Electrically Erased Permanent
Resident of Memory
3) Especially Erased Programmable Read
Only Memory
4) Encoded Erased Programmable Read
Only Memory
5) None of these
188. The following is the shortcut key for spelling check
1) F1 2) F3 3) F5 4) F7 5) None of these
189. MS-Excel
contains how many rows ?
1) 65,500 2) 65,530 3)
65,400
4) 65,536 5) None of these
190. Large collections of files are called
1)
fields 2) records 3) databases
4)
file system 5) None of these
191. Computer language used for scientific calculations etc.
1)
LOGO 2) COBOL 3)
BASIC
4)
C++ 5) None of
these
192. The communication
protocol used by internet is:
1) HTTP 2)
WWW 3) TCP/IP
4) All of the above e) None of these
193. In which operating system can you give the smallest file
name ?
1)
Ps/2 2) Dos 3)
Window NT
4)
Window 5) None of these
194. What is the shortcut key of superscript__
1)
Ctrl + = 2) Ctrl + + 3)
Ctrl + shift + =
4)
Ctrl + Shift + + 5) None of these
195. Which program translated one line at a time_____
1) Interpreter 2) Translator 3)
Compiler
4) Assembler 5) None of these
196. When a key is pressed, which standard converts the key
stroke into the corresponding bits ?
1) ANSI 2)
ASCII 3)
EBCDIC
4) ISO 5)
None of these
197. What is the full form of UPS______
1) Uncontinuous Power Supply
2) Untriptted Power Switch 3) Untraped Power Switch
4) Unintrupted Power Supply 5) None of these
198. Which device is used to read the code numbers of Demand
Draft ?
1) OMR 2)
OCR 3) MICR
4) MCR 5)
None of these
199. Which one is a commercial computer ?
1)
MARK – I 2) ENIAC 3) EDSAC
4)
UNIVAC 5) None of
these
200. How much percentage Zoom is possible in MS Word ?
1)
200 % 2) 300 % 3) 400 % 4) 100 % 5) 500 %
ALL THE BEST
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